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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 22.06.2025 00:12

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why is Iceland donating its entire artillery to Ukraine, leaving it defenseless against any invasion?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Chesterfield man reverses diabetes after losing seven stone - BBC

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Is it true that most people in Québec are bilingual in French and English? If so, why do they often identify as monolingual?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.